Jesus used the terms “Son of God” and “Son of Man” inter-changeably in many places in scripture, to convey that he is both God and man. In the context of John 5:27, wouldn’t it make more sense for Jesus to say that the “Son of God” has the authority to judge?
Why did Jesus say authority was given to him to execute judgement because he is the "Son of Man"? Wouldn't "Son of God" make more sense?
To make it more relatable to us as men.
ReplyDeleteBecoz he was conceived by man but, was sent by God.
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